Instant Success in 1Z0-338 Exam with Valid 1Z0-338 Questions Dumps

Question: 1

 

A cloud user is assigned the Service Administrator role.

Which cloud actions can this user perform?

 

  1. Perform all tasks in the My Services application, including user and role management tasks.
  2. View, create, update, and delete Oracle Compute Cloud Service resources.
  3. View only the Oracle Compute Cloud resources.
  4. Work with one or more Oracle Cloud services only and use the My Services application to manage his or her own password and security challenge questions.
  5. Perform cloud backups of a specific instance.

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 2

 

Which two options would you use to allow direct path loads to run in parallel on your Exadata platform? (Choose two.)

 

  1. creating the required environment by using Smart Scan parallelization
  2. setting the initialization parameter PARALLEL_ENABLED to TRUE to enable parallel direct path loads
  3. setting the PARALLEL clause on both the external table and the table where you are loading the data
  4. adding the PARALLEL hint to the CTAS or IAS statement
  5. setting the PARALLEL_FORCE_LOCAL parameter to TRUE

 

Answer: C,D   

 

Question: 3

 

You notice that a database node has hung, so you open a Service Request via My Oracle Support.

What diagnostic output will you send to My Oracle Support by default?

 

  1. pkginfo
  2. oswatcher
  3. AWR
  4. v$sessionoutput
  5. list of database users

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 4

 

Which statement is true about Exadata Storage Servers?

 

  1. Exadata Storage Servers automatically delete old diagnostic and metric files.
  2. Exadata requires a running database instance on all storage servers and database servers.
  3. Redundancy for the user data that is stored in a database that is running on Exadata is achieved with RAID5.
  4. Communication between a database and an Exadata storage flows over low latency 10 Gigabit Ethernet.
  5. Exadata uses network affinity to determine which storage server data is written.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 5

 

Which three items are the main elements of Oracle Database Resource Manager? (Choose three.)

 

  1. SQL Explain Plan
  2. resource plan
  3. resource consumer group
  4. resource plan directive
  5. IORMPLAN object

 

Answer: B,C,D   

 

Question: 6

 

In a customer’s ACFS filesystem, they would like you to set up replication between the existing local primary and the remote standby Exadata system.

Which tool would you use to administer the replication process?

 

  1. Replication is controlled by using Enterprise Manager Cloud Control.
  2. Replication is controlled by using sqlplus while you are logged in as SYSASM.
  3. Replication is controlled by using the acfsutil command-line tool.
  4. Replication of ACFS filesystems for non-database files on Exadata is not supported.
  5. Replication is controlled by using the exacli command-line tool.

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 7

 

Which two statements are true about troubleshooting failed patching activities? (Choose two.)

 

  1. Dependency issues found duringyumupdates should be ignored by using theforceoption.
  2. Failed storage cell patches are rolled back to the previous release automatically.
  3. Failed OS patches on database servers can be rolled back.
  4. Dependency issues that are found duringyumupdates require rolling back to a previous release before retrying.
  5. Bundle patches applied by usingopatch autocannot roll back only the database or the grid infrastructure home.
  6. Database server OS updates can be rolled back by usingopatch auto –rollback.

 

Answer: A,F   

 

Question: 8

 

The Exadata architecture is divided into two specific tiers: the database tier and the storage tier.

What protocol do these tiers use to communicate with each other?

 

  1. iDB – Intelligent Database Protocol
  2. InfiniBand protocol
  3. Ethernet protocol
  4. Secure Shell protocol
  5. Fibre Channel protocol

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 9

 

Your customer needs to ensure that their data is available on the Exadata machine during patches. The customer wants to be able to patch one server at a time but still be protected against single-node server failure.

What ASM redundancy level should they use?

 

  1. High
  2. Normal
  3. External
  4. Extreme
  5. Standard

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Reference:

http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/exadata/maa-exadata-asm-cloud-3656632.pdf(page 7)

 

Question: 10

 

In which three ways can customers access the ILOM interface to manage the Exadata database and storage server hardware components? (Choose three.)

 

  1. ILOM CLI interface through the management network
  2. ILOM Web interface through the management network
  3. remote KVM session to the ILOM
  4. from the database server operating system tool "ilomcli"
  5. from the storage server operating system tool "ilomcli"

 

Answer: B,C,E   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  81

Test Number: 1Z0-338

Vendor Name: Oracle   

Cert Name: Oracle Cloud

Test Name:   Oracle Exadata Database Machine and Cloud Service 2017 Implementation Essentials

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com/

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/1z0-338/          

Features of CertsWarrior Oracle 1Z0-349 Exam Dumps

Question: 1

 

You notice that one of the required email groups is not showing up on the subscription management page.

 

What is causing this?

 

  1. The “Include this Email group on the Subscription Management page” check box must be selected.

 

  1. The email group has not been activated.

 

  1. A subscription confirmation page has not been configured.

 

  1. The email group title contains special characters.

 

Answer: C

 

Explanation:

Reference

http://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/marketingcs_gs/OMCAA/Help/EmailGroups/Tasks/EditingTheSubscriptionManagementPage.htm

 

 

Question: 2

 

What is the process to activate this green check mark?

 

  1. Your client must complete the Branded Bounceback Address Configuration Workbook. You can then use the values from this document to configure the bounceback domain in Assets> Email Setup> Email Defaults.

 

  1. Your client must complete the Branded Bounceback Address Configuration Workbook and submit this to Oracle support. After Oracle has created the bounceback domain, the green check mark will appear in Assets> Email Setup> Email Defaults.

 

  1. The default Reply-To email address needs to be specified in Assets> Email Setup> Email Defaults. This email address must be a valid email address.

 

  1. Your client will provide you with access to their DNS control panel. Use the values from the DNS control panel to configure the bounceback domain in Assets> Email Setup> Email Defaults.

 

  1. Your client must compete the Branded Bounceback Address Configuration Workbook. You can then use the values from this document to configure the bounceback domain in Setup> Company Defaults.

 

Answer: B

 

 

Question: 3

 

Which four additional Contact fields must you create in Eloqua to allow for the integration multiple CRMs?

 

  1. CRM Email Opt Out

 

  1. CRM Lead ID

 

  1. Email Address

 

  1. CRM Company

 

  1. CRM Contact ID

 

  1. CRM Account ID

 

Answer: BCEF

 

 

Question: 4

 

While testing your client’s Closed-Loop Reporting system, you notice that the report data Campaign ROI is inaccurate. What are two reasons for this?

 

  1. Many campaigns are missing Actual Cost on the Campaign.

 

  1. The Campaign association is being associated through all Contacts on the Opportunity.

 

  1. The Campaign association is being associated through only the Primary Contact on the Opportunity.

 

  1. Some Opportunities are missing Amount.

 

  1. The client has chosen the Influenced attribution model.

 

Answer: BE

 

 

Question: 5

 

You are a Customer Administrator. You create a new campaign and want to restrict who is able to edit, delete, and activate the campaign.

 

What should you do after saving the campaign?

 

  1. By default, only the creator of the asset has full access and no further action is required.

 

  1. From the campaign, edit access from the Permissions menu option.

 

  1. From the campaign, edit access from the Settings menu option.

 

  1. From the Setup> users area, edit access to Asset Creation in Security Group Overview.

 

Answer: D

 

Explanation:

Reference

 

http://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/marketingcs_gs/OMCAA/Help/SecurityGroups/DefaultAssetPermissions.htm

 

 

Question: 6

 

You are building a form for a white paper download, and you want to ensure that submitters who are unsubscribed still get the whitepaper emailed to them.

 

How do you configure this?

 

  1. Use the Add to Campaign form processing step to add the contacts to a re-engagement campaign.

 

  1. Use the Send Submitter an Email form processing step.

 

  1. Use the Subscribe Contacts Globally form processing step.

 

  1. Use the Email Group- Subscribe/Unsubscribe form processing step.

 

Answer: A

 

 

Question: 7

 

Your client wants to change the font of the out-of-the box subscription management page to match the company branding guidelines.

 

How do you configure this?

 

  1. Navigation to Setup> Display Formats and choose the desired font from the drop-down list.

 

  1. Create a custom object to house the font style, then point the subscription page to the object.

 

  1. Navigate to Setup> Company Defaults and choose the desired font form the drop-down list.

 

  1. Navigate the Email Groups> Global Subscription Management > Edit& Preview Page.

 

Answer: D

 

Explanation:

Reference

 

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/marketingcs_gs/OMCAA/pdf/OracleEloqua_Emails_UserGuide.pdf(p.29 and 30)

 

 

Question: 8

 

IP warming is achieved by ________________.

 

  1. Slowly increasing the volume of emails to quality contacts

 

  1. Sending a high volume of emails to valid email addresses

 

  1. Configuring DKIM for all email domains

 

  1. Running deliverability reports for every email sent from Eloqua

 

Answer: A

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  80

Test Number: 1Z0-349

Vendor Name: Oracle   

Cert Name: Oracle Cloud

Test Name:   Oracle Eloqua Marketing Cloud Service 2017 Implementation Essentials

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com/

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/1z0-349/

NSE7 Dumps for Guaranteed Success in NSE7 Test

Question: 1

 

Examine the IPsec configuration shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

 

An administrator wants to monitor the VPN by enabling the IKE real time debug using these commands:

diagnose vpn ike log-filter src-addr4 10.0.10.1

diagnose debug application ike -1

diagnose debug enable

The VPN is currently up, there is no traffic crossing the tunnel and DPD packets are being interchanged between both IPsec gateways. However, the IKE real time debug does NOT show any output. Why isn’t there any output?

 

  1. The IKE real time shows the phases 1 and 2 negotiations only. It does not show any more output once the tunnel is up.
  2. The log-filter setting is set incorrectly. The VPN’s traffic does not match this filter.
  3. The IKE real time debug shows the phase 1 negotiation only. For information after that, the administrator must use the IPsec real time debug instead: diagnose debug application ipsec -1.
  4. The IKE real time debug shows error messages only. If it does not provide any output, it indicates that the tunnel is operating normally.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 2

 

Which of the following statements are true regarding the SIP session helper and the SIP application layer gateway (ALG)? (Choose three.)

 

  1. SIP session helper runs in the kernel; SIP ALG runs as a user space process.
  2. SIP ALG supports SIP HA failover; SIP helper does not.
  3. SIP ALG supports SIP over IPv6; SIP helper does not.
  4. SIP ALG can create expected sessions for media traffic; SIP helper does not.
  5. SIP helper supports SIP over TCP and UDP; SIP ALG supports only SIP over UDP.

 

Answer: B,C,D   

 

Question: 3

 

A FortiGate device has the following LDAP configuration:

 

The administrator executed the ‘dsquery’ command in the Windows LDAp server 10.0.1.10, and got the following output:

>dsquery user –samid administrator

“CN=Administrator, CN=Users, DC=trainingAD, DC=training, DC=lab”

Based on the output, what FortiGate LDAP setting is configured incorrectly?

 

  1. cnid.
  2. username.
  3. password.
  4. dn.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 4

 

Which of the following statements is true regarding a FortiGate configured as an explicit web proxy?

 

  1. FortiGate limits the number of simultaneous sessions per explicit web proxy user. This limit CANNOT be modified by the administrator.
  2. FortiGate limits the total number of simultaneous explicit web proxy users.
  3. FortiGate limits the number of simultaneous sessions per explicit web proxy user. The limit CAN be modified by the administrator.
  4. FortiGate limits the number of workstations that authenticate using the same web proxy user credentials. This limit CANNOT be modified by the administrator.

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 5

 

A corporate network allows Internet Access to FSSO users only. The FSSO user student does not have Internet access after successfully logged into the Windows AD network. The output of the ‘diagnose debug authd fsso list’ command does not show student as an active FSSO user. Other FSSO users can access the Internet without problems. What should the administrator check? (Choose two.)

 

  1. The user student must not be listed in the CA’s ignore user list.
  2. The user student must belong to one or more of the monitored user groups.
  3. The student workstation’s IP subnet must be listed in the CA’s trusted list.
  4. At least one of the student’s user groups must be allowed by a FortiGate firewall policy.

 

Answer: B,D   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  45

Test Number: NSE7

Vendor Name: Fortinet

Cert Name: FCNSP

Test Name:   Fortinet Troubleshooting Professional

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com/

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/nse7/

VCS-257 Dumps for Guaranteed Success in VCS-257 Test

Question: 1

 

Given the following command:

 

Which instruction does the !ctrl:c2 attribute prompt Volume Manager to follow?

 

  1. to exclude devices connected to controller c2
  2. to exclude devices connected to all controllers except c2
  3. to exclude devices from enclosure named “ctrl”
  4. to exclude all but the fastest devices from controller c2

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 2

 

Which command should an administrator use to temporarily stop the online relayout operation tagged as “newlayout”?

 

  1. vxtask stop newlayout
  2. vxtask pause newlayout
  3. vxrelayout –g mydg stop newlayout
  4. vxlrelayout –g mydg pause newlayout

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 3

 

Which Veritas InfoScale Storage for UNIX/Linux user interface provides a menu-driven, text-based interface for performing some disk and disk group administration?

 

  1. Veritas Enterprise Administrator (VEA)
  2. Veritas InfoScale Operations Manager (VIOM)
  3. vxedit
  4. vxdiskadm

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 4

An organization is trading in an array and needs to securely clean file system data.

Which command should the administrator use to shred the data?

 

  1. vxdisk
  2. vxdiskunsetup
  3. vxdiskadm
  4. vxdiskconfig

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 5

A snapshot is created using the command vxassist snapstart and successfully completes. The server is subsequently rebooted.

What is the snapshot plex state after the server has come completely online?

 

  1. SNAPREADY
  2. SNAPATT
  3. SNAPDONE
  4. SNAPRECOVER

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 6

 

A volume that contains strictly two data plexes and has four subdisks in each plex can have which two types of layouts? (Select two.)

 

  1. concat-mirror
  2. stripe-mirror
  3. stripe with parity
  4. mirror-concat
  5. mirror-stripe

 

Answer: D,E   

 

Question: 7

 

Which object is stored in the private region of a Veritas Volume Manager disk?

 

  1. File Change Log
  2. FastResync maps
  3. Configuration database
  4. Storage Replicator Log

 

Answer: C   

 

 

NAlthough each product varies in complexity and depth of technical knowledge, the certification exams target end-users and cover core elements measuring technical knowledge against factors such as installation, configuration, deployment, management & administration, and basic troubleshooting.

This program consists of a technical exam at a product/version level that validates that the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills necessary to successfully administer Veritas InfoScale Storage 7.1 for UNIX/Linux

Passing this exam will result in a Veritas Certified Specialist (VCS) certification and counts towards the requirements for a Veritas Certified Professional (VCP) certification in Storage Management and High Availability for UNIX.

Certswarrior is a team of highly Administration of Veritas InfoScale Storage 7.1 for UNIX/Linux qualified professionals spending numerous efforts in preparation of VCS-257 exam material same like actual VCS-257 questions and answers to make it easy for VCS-257 candidates/professionals to go through their final exam. Our material of VCS-257 will be PDF file which will download instantly once purchase is completed. However, if it doesn't download for any reason WE are live at ""Live Chat"" support with sales and technical assistance and could be contacted through email as well.

 

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  90

Test Number: VCS-257

Vendor Name: Veritas  

Cert Name: Veritas Certified Professional

Test Name:   Administration of Veritas InfoScale Storage 7.1 for UNIX/Linux

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com/

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/vcs-257/           

JN0-420 Dumps for Guaranteed Success in JN0-420 Test

Question: 1

 

Which two automation frameworks are agentless when managing Junos devices?

 

  1. Chef
  2. Ansible
  3. Puppet
  4. SaltStack

 

Answer: BD   

 

Question: 2

 

With the inclusion of Python in the Junos OS, what is an advantage that this feature provides administrators?

 

  1. The ability to compile Python scripts on the device.
  2. The ability to execute Python scripts on the device.
  3. It provides compatibility with all Python versions.
  4. It provides the Python command line (REPL) for testing

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 3

 

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two )

 

  1. to enforce consistency in automated devices
  2. increase programming language fluency
  3. to provide historical configuration management
  4. to improve product lifecycle management

 

Answer: AD   

 

Question: 4

 

Which command is used to execute an Ansible playbook?

 

  1. ansible-vault
  2. ansible
  3. ansible-galaxy
  4. ansible-playbook

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 5

 

What are two attributes of the jsd JET service process? (Choose two.)

 

  1. It executes APIs from multiple sessions in parallel
  2. It executes one API request per session.
  3. It creates a separate thread to service JET application requests
  4. It supports only one client session at a time

 

Answer: BC   

 

Question: 6

 

Referring to the exhibit. how would you solve this issue ?

 

  1. Enable protocol-version v1 under the SSH configuration hierarchy.
  2. Enable ssh under the NETCONF configuration hierarchy.
  3. Enable outbound-ssh with services netconf under the SSH configuration hierarchy.
  4. Enable trace options under the NETCONF configuration hierarchy.

 

Answer: B   

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Test Information:

Total Questions:  65

Test Number: JN0-420

Vendor Name: Juniper 

Cert Name: JNCIS

Test Name:   NCIS-DevOps

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com/

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/jn0-420/

Instant Success in JN0-102 Exam with Valid JN0-102 Questions Dumps

Question: 1

 

The IP address 10.1.1.1 belongs to which class of IP address space?

 

  1. Class A
  2. Class B
  3. Class C
  4. Class D

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 2

 

For the interface ge-1/2/3.4, what does "ge" represent?

 

  1. SONET/SDH
  2. Gigabit Ethernet
  3. Aggregated Ethernet
  4. GRE

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 3

 

Which word starts a command to display the operational status of a Junos device?

 

  1. put
  2. set
  3. show
  4. get

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 4

 

Which command prompt indicates that you are in operational mode?

 

  1. user@router&
  2. user@router#
  3. user@router%
  4. user@router>

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 5

 

What is the decimal equivalent of 00000100?

 

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 9
  4. 12

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 6

 

What is a valid IPv6 address?

 

  1. 00:05:85:23:45:67
  2. 127.0.0.1
  3. 2001:0db8:3000:2215:0000:0000:aaaa:1111
  4. 49.0001.0192.0168.1001.00

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 7

 

Which simplified IPv6 address is the same as the IP address 2001:0000:1000:0000:0000:cbff:0020:0001/64?

 

  1. 2001::1::cbff:2:0001/64
  2. 2001::1000::cbff:20:1/64
  3. 2001:0:1000::cbff:20:1/64
  4. 2001:0:1:0:0:cbff:2:1/64

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 8

 

What are three characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)

 

  1. UDP is faster than TCP.
  2. UDP operates at the Transport Layer.
  3. UDP is connection-oriented.
  4. UDP data is sent best-effort.
  5. UDP is more reliable than TCP.

 

Answer: A,B,D   

 

Question: 9

 

Which layer in the OSI model is responsible for translating frames into bits?

 

  1. Application Layer
  2. Presentation Layer
  3. Data Link Layer
  4. Physical Layer

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 10

 

Which layer in the TCP/IP model is responsible for delivering packets to their destination?

 

  1. Application Layer
  2. Transport Layer
  3. Internet Layer
  4. Network Access Layer

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 11

 

Why is IPv6 packet processing more effective than IPv4 packet processing?

 

  1. fixed header size
  2. smaller header size
  3. fewer header fields
  4. variable header size

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 12

 

A user opens a webpage that requires the transmission of packets from the Web server to the client's browser. The packets transmitted from the Web server to the client exceed the smallest MTU value on the communications path.

Which two protocol functions allow this type of communication? (Choose two.)

 

  1. packet segmentation
  2. serialized checking
  3. packet sequencing
  4. parallel checking

 

Answer: A,C   

 

Question: 13

 

Which two statements are true about TCP communication? (Choose two.)

 

  1. The receiver acknowledges the final packet in each communications stream.
  2. The receiver adds sequencing numbers to the packets received.
  3. The sender adds sequencing numbers to the packets it sends.
  4. The receiver acknowledges each packet it receives from the sending device.

 

Answer: A,C   

 

Question: 14

 

Which two statements are true about optical networks? (Choose two.)

 

  1. SONET and SDH both use time-division multiplexing.
  2. An optical transport network system uses time-division multiplexing.
  3. SONET and SDH both use wavelength-division multiplexing.
  4. An optical transport network system uses wavelength-division multiplexing.

 

Answer: A,D   

 

Question: 15

 

At which layer of the OSI model does error checking occur with IPv6?

 

  1. Layer 2
  2. Layer 3
  3. Layer 4
  4. Layer 7

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 16

 

Which statement is correct regarding IPv6 addresses?

 

  1. An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits separated into eight 16-bit hexadecimal sections.
  2. An IPv6 address consists of 64 bits separated into four 16-bit hexadecimal sections.
  3. An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits separated into sixteen 8-bit hexadecimal sections.
  4. An IPv6 address consists of 64 bits separated into eight 8-bit hexadecimal sections.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 17

 

Which two statements about MPLS label-switched paths (LSPs) are true? (Choose two.)

 

  1. LSPs are bidirectional.
  2. LSPs are unidirectional.
  3. LSPs must follow the IGP's shortest path.
  4. LSPs can follow paths other than the IGP's shortest path.

 

Answer: B,D   

 

Question: 18

 

What are two ways that packet fragmentation is handled differently between IPv6 and IPv4? (Choose two.)

 

  1. End hosts determine the path MTU for IPv6.
  2. End hosts determine the path MTU for IPv4.
  3. Packet fragmentation occurs at intermediate nodes for IPv4.
  4. Packet fragmentation occurs at intermediate nodes for IPv6.

 

Answer: A,C   

 

Question: 19

 

-- Exhibit --

user@router> show route protocol static

inet.0: 15 destinations, 15 routes (15 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden)

+ = Active Route, - = Last Active, * = Both

99.0.0.0/17 *[Static/5] 00:00:11

>to 10.1.1.2 via ge-0/0/1.0

99.0.0.0/19 *[Static/5] 00:00:11

>to 10.1.2.2 via ge-0/0/2.0

99.0.0.0/24 *[Static/5] 00:00:11

>to 10.1.3.2 via ge-0/0/3.0

99.0.0.0/26 *[Static/5] 00:00:11

>to 10.1.4.2 via ge-0/0/4.0

-- Exhibit --

In the exhibit, there are four static routes that route traffic through different interfaces.

Which interface does the router use if traffic is sent to the 99.0.0.1 destination?

 

  1. ge-0/0/1
  2. ge-0/0/2
  3. ge-0/0/3
  4. ge-0/0/4

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 20

 

In dotted decimal notation, what is the equivalent of 11010101 01000010 01111111 11000010?

 

  1. 213.66.127.194
  2. 214.66.128.195
  3. 212.64.143.194
  4. 213.66.111.194

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 21

 

What is the binary equivalent of 242.168.94.124?

 

  1. 11110011 10101000 01011110 01111100
  2. 11110010 10101010 01011110 01111100
  3. 11110010 10101000 01011110 01111100
  4. 11110010 10101000 01010110 01111100

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 22

 

What is the last usable IP address in the 218.6.0.0/17 network?

 

  1. 218.6.125.254
  2. 218.6.126.254
  3. 218.6.127.254
  4. 218.6.128.254

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 23

 

What is the network address for the 10.13.147.100/19 host?

 

  1. 10.13.128.0
  2. 10.13.147.0
  3. 10.13.0.0
  4. 10.13.100.0

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 24

 

Which two prefixes would summarize the networks shown below? (Choose two.)

192.168.1.0/24

192.168.2.0/24

192.168.3.0/24

 

  1. 192.168.0.0/23
  2. 192.168.0.0/22
  3. 192.168.0.0/24
  4. 192.168.0.0/21

 

Answer: B,D   

 

Question: 25

 

How many host addresses are available in the 172.27.0.0/28 network?

 

  1. 6
  2. 14
  3. 28
  4. 30

 

Answer: B   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  405

Test Number: JN0-102

Vendor Name: Juniper 

Cert Name: Junos

Test Name:   Junos, Associate (JNCIA-Junos)

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com/

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/jn0-102/

Instant Success in 70-774 Exam with Valid 70-774 Questions Dumps

Question: 1

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You are designing an Azure Machine Learning workflow.

You have a dataset that contains two million large digital photographs.

You plan to detect the presence of trees in the photographs.

You need to ensure that your model supports the following:

Solution: You create an endpoint to the Computer vision API.

Does this meet the goal?

 

  1. Yes
  2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 2

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You are designing an Azure Machine Learning workflow.

You have a dataset that contains two million large digital photographs.

You plan to detect the presence of trees in the photographs.

You need to ensure that your model supports the following:

Solution: You create an Azure notebook that supports the Microsoft Cognitive Toolkit.

Does this meet the goal?

 

  1. Yes
  2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 3

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You are designing an Azure Machine Learning workflow.

You have a dataset that contains two million large digital photographs.

You plan to detect the presence of trees in the photographs.

You need to ensure that your model supports the following:

Solution: You create a Machine Learning experiment that implements the Multiclass Neural Network module.

Does this meet the goal?

 

  1. Yes
  2. No

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 4

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You are designing an Azure Machine Learning workflow.

You have a dataset that contains two million large digital photographs.

You plan to detect the presence of trees in the photographs.

You need to ensure that your model supports the following:

Solution: You create a Machine Learning experiment that implements the Multiclass Decision Jungle module.

Does this meet the goal?

 

  1. Yes
  2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  37

Test Number: 70-774

Vendor Name: Microsoft            

Cert Name: MCSE

Test Name:   Perform Cloud Data Science with Azure Machine Learning

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com/

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/70-774/

70-743 Dumps for Guaranteed Success in 70-743 Test

Question: 1

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Contoso.com has the following configuration:

 

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.

You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.

Solution: You upgrade a domain controller to Windows Server 2016.

Does this meet the goal?

 

  1. Yes
  2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Device registration requires a forest functional level of Windows Server 2012 R2.

References:

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/identity/ad-fs/deployment/configure-a-federation-server-with-device-registration-service

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/identity/ad-fs/design/ad-fs-requirements

 

Question: 2

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Contoso.com has the following configuration:

 

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.

You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.

Solution: You raise the forest (domain) functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2.

Does this meet the goal?

 

  1. Yes
  2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

For a Windows Server 2012 R2 AD FS server, this solution would work. However, new installations of AD FS 2016 require the Active Directory 2016 schema (minimum version 85).

References:

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/identity/ad-fs/operations/configure-device-based-conditional-access-on-premises

 

Question: 3

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Contoso.com has the following configuration:

 

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.

You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.

Solution: You run adprep.exe from the Windows Server 2016 installation media.

Does this meet the goal?

 

  1. Yes
  2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Device registration requires a forest functional level of Windows Server 2012 R2.

New installations of AD FS 2016 require the Active Directory 2016 schema (minimum version 85).

References:

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd464018(v=ws.10).aspx

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/identity/ad-fs/operations/configure-device-based-conditional-access-on-premises

 

Question: 4

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.

On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.

 

You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace.

Solution: From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Add-DnsServertrustAnchor cmdlet.

Does this meet the goal?

 

  1. Yes
  2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

The Add-DnsServerTrustAnchor command adds a trust anchor to a DNS server. A trust anchor (or trust “point”) is a public cryptographic key for a signed zone. Trust anchors must be configured on every non-authoritative DNS server that will attempt to validate DNS data. Trust Anchors have no direct relation to DSSEC validation.

References:

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj649932.aspx

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn593672(v=ws.11).aspx

 

Question: 5

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.

On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.

 

You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace.

Solution: From a Group Policy object (GPO) in the domain, you add a rule to the Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT).

Does this meet the goal?

 

  1. Yes
  2. No

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

The NRPT stores configurations and settings that are used to deploy DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC), and also stores information related to DirectAccess, a remote access technology.

Note: The Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT) is a new feature available in Windows Server 2008 R2. The NRPT is a table that contains rules you can configure to specify DNS settings or special behavior for names or namespaces. When performing DNS name resolution, the DNS Client service checks the NRPT before sending a DNS query. If a DNS query or response matches an entry in the NRPT, it is handled according to settings in the policy. Queries and responses that do not match an NRPT entry are processed normally.

References:

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee649207(v=ws.10).aspx

 

Question: 6

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.

On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.

 

You need to ensure that all of the client computers in the domain perform DNSSEC validation for the fabrikam.com namespace.

Solution: From a Group Policy object (GPO) in the domain, you modify the Network List Manager Policies.

Does this meet the goal?

 

  1. Yes
  2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Network List Manager Policies are security settings that you can use to configure different aspects of how networks are listed and displayed on one computer or on many computers.

Network List Manager Policies are not related to DNSSEC.

References:

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj966256(v=ws.11).aspx

https://technet.microsoft.com/nl-nl/itpro/windows/keep-secure/network-list-manager-policies?f=255&MSPPError=-2147217396

The right way would be by using network policies:

Add-DnsServerClientSubnet -Name “subnet4” -IPv4Subnet 172.16.1.0/24 -PassThru
Add-DnsServerQueryResolutionPolicy -Name “blockqueries” -Action IGNORE -ClientSubnet “EQ,subnet4” -PassThru

See also: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/networking/dns/deploy/apply-filters-on-dns-queries

 

Question: 7

 

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.

You need to configure Server1 as a multitenant RAS Gateway.

What should you install on Server1?

 

  1. the Network Controller server role
  2. the Remote Access server role
  3. the Data Center Bridging feature
  4. the Network Policy and Access Services server role

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

RAS Gateway - Multitenant. You can deploy RAS Gateway as a multitenant, software-based edge gateway and router when you are using Hyper-V Network Virtualization or you have VM networks deployed with virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs). With the RAS Gateway, CloudService Providers (CSPs) and Enterprises can enable datacenter and cloud network traffic routing between virtual and physical networks, including the Internet. With the RAS Gateway, your tenants can use point-so-site VPN connections to access their VM network resources in the datacenter from anywhere. You can also provide tenants with site-to-site VPN connections between their remote sites and your CSP datacenter. In addition, you can configure the RAS Gateway with BGP for dynamic routing, and you can enable Network Address Translation (NAT) to provide Internet access for VMs on VM networks.

References:

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/networking/remote-access/remote-access

 

Question: 8

You have an Active Directory domain that contains several Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2016.

You plan to deploy network virtualization and to centrally manage Datacenter Firewall policies.

Which component must you install for the planned deployment?

 

  1. the Routing role service
  2. the Canary Network Diagnostics feature
  3. the Network Controller server role
  4. the Data Center Bridging feature

 

Answer: C   

 

Explanation:

Using Windows PowerShell, the REST API, or a management application, you can use Network Controller to manage the following physical and virtual network infrastructure:

References:

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn859239.aspx

 

Question: 9

 

You have a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016. VM1 hosts a service that requires high network throughput.

VM1 has a virtual network adapter that connects to a Hyper-V switch named vSwitch1. vSwitch1 has one network adapter. The network adapter supports Remote Direct Memory Access (RMDA), the Single Root I/O Virtualization (SR-IOV) interface, Quality of Service (QoS), and Receive Side Scaling (RSS).

You need to ensure that the traffic from VM1 can be processed by multiple networking processors.

Which Windows PowerShell command should you run on the host of VM1?

 

  1. Set-NetAdapterRss
  2. Set-NetAdapterRdma
  3. Set-NetAdapterSriov
  4. Set-NetAdapterQoS

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

The Set-NetAdapterRss cmdlet sets the receive side scaling (RSS) properties on a network adapter. RSS is a scalability technology that distributes the receive network traffic among multiple processors by hashing the header of the incoming packet. Without RSS Windows Server 2012/2016; network traffic is received on the first processor which can quickly reach full utilization limiting receive network throughput. Many properties can be configured using the parameters to optimize the performance of RSS. The selection of the processors to use for RSS is an important aspect of load balancing. Most of the parameters for this cmdlet help to determine the processors used by RSS.

 

Question: 10

 

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is a Hyper-V host that hosts a virtual machine named VM1.

Server1 has three network adapter cards that are connected to virtual switches named vSwitch1, vSwitch2 and vSwitch3.

You configure NIC Teaming on VM1 as shown in the exhibit.

You need to ensure that VM1 will retain access to the network if a physical network adapter card fails on Server1.

What should you do?

 

  1. From Hyper-V Manager on Server1, modify the settings of VM1.
  2. From Windows PowerShell on VM1, run theSet-VmNetworkAdapterTeamMapping cmdlet.
  3. From Windows PowerShell on Server1, run the Set-VmNetworkAdapterFailoverConfiguration cmdlet.
  4. From Windows PowerShell on Server1, run the Set-VmSwitch cmdlet.

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

You can configure NIC teaming in the Guest OS; however, before NIC teaming will work in a virtual machine, you need to enable NIC teaming in the Advanced Features section of the VM settings.

 

Question: 11

You have a Nano Server named Nano1.

You deploy several containers to Nano1 that use an image named Image1.

You need to deploy a new container to Nano1 that uses Image1.

What should you run?

 

  1. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
  2. the docker run command
  3. the docker load command
  4. the Install-NanoServerPackage cmdlet

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

When an operator executes docker run, the container process that runs is isolated in that it has its own file system, its own networking, and its own isolated process tree separate from the host.

The basic docker run command takes this form:

$ docker run [OPTIONS] IMAGE[:TAG|@DIGEST] [COMMAND] [ARG...]

 

Question: 12

 

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.

You plan to deploy Internet Information Services (IIS) in a Windows container.

You need to prepare Server1 for the planned deployment.

Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

 

  1. Install the Container feature.
  2. Install Docker.
  3. Install the Base Container Images.
  4. Install the Web Server role.
  5. Install the Hyper-V server role.

 

Answer: A,B,C   

 

Explanation:

Step 1 (A): The container feature needs to be enabled before working with Windows containers. To do so run the following command in an elevated PowerShell session.

Enable-WindowsOptionalFeature -Online -FeatureName containers –All

Step 2 (B): Docker is required in order to work with Windows containers.

Note: First install the OneGet PowerShell module.

Install-Module -Name DockerMsftProvider -Repository PSGallery -Force

Next you use OneGet to install the latest version of Docker.

Install-Package -Name docker -ProviderName DockerMsftProvider

Step 3 (C): Install Base Container Images

Windows containers are deployed from templates or images. Before a container can be deployed, a container base OS image needs to be downloaded. The following commands will download the Nano Server base image.

Pull the Nano Server base image.

docker pull microsoft/nanoserver

 

Question: 13

 

You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.

Server1 has a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is configured to run the Docker daemon.

On VM1, you have a container network that uses transparent mode.

You need to ensure that containers that run on VM1 can obtain IP addresses from DHCP.

What should you do?

 

  1. On VM1, run docker network connect.
  2. On Server1, run docker network connect.
  3. On VM1, run Get-VMNetworkAdapter –VMName VM1 | Set-VMNetworkAdapter –MacAddressSpoofing On.
  4. On Server1, run Get-VMNetworkAdapter –VMName VM1 | Set-VMNetworkAdapter – MacAddressSpoofing On.

 

Answer: D   

 

Explanation:

If the container host is virtualized, and you wish to use DHCP for IP assignment, you must enable MACAddressSpoofing.

PS C:\> Get-VMNetworkAdapter -VMName ContainerHostVM | Set-VMNetworkAdapter -MacAddressSpoofing On

The command needs to be run on the Hyper-V host.

References:

https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/windowscontainers/management/container_networking

 

Question: 14

 

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You install the Docker daemon on Server1.

You need to configure the Docker daemon to accept connections only on TCP port 64500.

What should you do?

 

  1. Edit the configuration.json file.
  2. Run the Set-ServiceWindows PowerShell cmdlet.
  3. Edit the daemon.json file.
  4. Modify the routing table on Server1.

 

Answer: C   

 

Explanation:

Configure Docker with Configuration File

The preferred method for configuring the Docker Engine on Windows is using aconfiguration file. The configuration file can be found at 'c:\ProgramData\docker\config\daemon.json'.

Only the desired configuration changes need to be added to the configuration file. For example, this sample configures the Docker Engine to accept incoming connections onport 64500. All other configuration options will use default values.

{

"hosts": ["tcp://0.0.0.0:64500"]

}

References:

https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/windowscontainers/docker/configure_docker_daemon

 

Question: 15

 

You have a failover cluster named Cluster1.

A virtual machine named VM1 is a highly available virtual machine that runs on Cluster1. A custom application named App1 runs on VM1.

You need to configure monitoring on VM1. If App1 adds an error entry to the Application event log, VM1 should be automatically rebooted and moved to another cluster node.

Which tool should you use?

 

  1. Resource Monitor
  2. Failover Cluster Manager
  3. Server Manager
  4. Hyper-V Manager

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Do you have a large number of virtualized workloads in your cluster? Have you been looking for a solution that allows you to detect if any of the virtualized workloads in your cluster are behaving abnormally? Would you like the cluster service to take recovery actions when these workloads are in an unhealthy state? In Windows Server 2012/2016, there is a great new feature, in Failover Clustering called “VM Monitoring”, which does exactly that – it allows you monitor the health state of applications that are running within a virtual machine and then reports that to the host level so that it can take recovery actions.

VM Monitoring can be easily configured using the Failover Cluster Manager through the following steps:

References:

https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/clustering/2012/04/18/how-to-configure-vm-monitoring-in-windows-server-2012/

 

Question: 16

 

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.

The disk configuration for Server1 is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

 

You add Server1 to a cluster.

You need to ensure that you can use Disk 1 for Storage Spaces Direct.

What should you do first?

 

  1. Set Disk 1 to offline.
  2. Convert Partition (E:) to ReFS.
  3. Convert Disk 1 to a dynamic disk.
  4. Delete Partition (E:).

 

Answer: D   

 

Explanation:

The disks used in Storage Spaces Direct cannot contain existing partitions.

 

Question: 17

 

Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains two Hyper-V hosts.

You plan to perform live migrations between the hosts.

You need to ensure that the live migration traffic is authenticated by using Kerberos.

What should you do first?

 

  1. From Server Manager, install the Host Guardian Service server role on a domain controller.
  2. From Active Directory Users and Computers, add the computer accounts for both servers to the Cryptographic Operators group.
  3. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the Delegation properties of the computer accounts for both servers.
  4. From Server Manager, install the Host Guardian Service server role on both servers.

 

Answer: C   

 

Explanation:

If you have decided to use Kerberos to authenticate live migration traffic, configure constrained delegation before you proceed to the rest of the steps.

To configure constrained delegation

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  218

Test Number: 70-743

Vendor Name: Microsoft            

Cert Name: MCSA

Test Name:   Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com/

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/70-743/

C9060-521 Dumps with Real C9060-521 PDF Questions Answers

Question: 1

 

What must occur before adding one or more spoke servers to the hub server?

 

  1. grant administrativeprivileges to spoke servers
  2. define hub server as the target server
  3. install IBM Spectrum Protect Operations Center on spoke servers
  4. define server-to-server communications between hub and spoke severs

 

Answer: D   

 

Explanation:

When you install the IBM Spectrum Protect server, the default configuration requires secure communication by using the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol. Unless this requirement was disabled for both the hub and the spoke servers, you must add the certificate of the spoke server to the truststore file of the hub server.

References:https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSEQVQ_8.1.0/srv.solutions/t_msdisk_add_spoke.html

 

 

Question: 2

 

What information is displayed by the query cleanup command?

 

  1. information about damaged files to exclude before running the conversion
  2. information about damaged files that were transferred to the target container during conversion
  3. information about damaged files that were repaired during conversion
  4. information about damaged files that are identified in a source storage pool during conversion

 

Answer: D   

 

Explanation:

Use by thequery cleanupcommand to display information about damaged files that are identified during a storage pool conversion process.

References:https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSGSG7_7.1.6/srv.reference/r_cmd_cleanup_query.html

 

 

Question: 3

 

Which option is added to ensure that all of the commands before the next SERIAL command complete before the script continues when scripting multiple commands in PARALLEL?

 

  1. WAIT=ON
  2. CONTINUE=NO
  3. PRIORITY=1
  4. WAIT=YES

 

Answer: D   

 

Explanation:

Wait

Specifies whether to wait for the server to complete processing this command in the foreground. The default is NO. Possible values are:

References: IBM Spectrum Protect for Windows, Version 8.1.0, Administrator's Reference, page 72

https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSEQVQ_8.1.0/srv.reference/b_srv_admin_ref_windows2.pdf

 

 

Question: 4

 

How do administrators find out they have been assigned an alert and view the details of that alert?

 

  1. Administrators log in to the Operations Center and view the Alerts page.
  2. Administrators are notified daily by email of any alerts that are assigned to their ID.
  3. Administrators are sent a text message that provides details of the assigned alert.
  4. Administrators must query the activity log to view alerts.

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

The Operations Center includes an Overview page where you can view high-level status information. From theOverview page, you can navigate to other pages that provide more details. Most of the Administrative activities like Adding Client node, monitoring backup, Alerts, Network Traffic, Storage Pools, Maintenance and few other features only can be Performed with Operation Center.

References:http://techiessite.com/access-operate-tivoli-storage-manager-567/

 

 

Question: 5

 

How is storage pool automatic migration started?

 

  1. increasing the High migration threshold to 100
  2. lowering the High migration threshold to 0
  3. increasing the LOw migration threshold to 100
  4. lowering the LOw migration threshold to 0

 

Answer: D   

 

Explanation:

To empty the storage pool, set LOWMIG=0.

 

 

Question: 6

 

What are two ways to determine when the IBM Spectrum Protect Server database was last backed up? (Select two.)

 

  1. Run theQUERY DBSPACE F=Dadministrative command.
  2. Run theQUERY VOLHIST TYPE=BACKUPFULLadministrative command.
  3. Run theSHOW DBadministrative command.
  4. Run theQUERY DB F=Dadministrative command.
  5. Click the Servers pod of the IBM Spectrum Protect Operations Center.

 

Answer: B,E   

 

Question: 7

 

Which component is used to transfer data on IBM Spectrum Protect for Virtual Environments?

 

  1. IBM Spectrum Protect Manager server
  2. vMotion Server
  3. vStorage Backup Server
  4. IBM Spectrum Protect Data Mover

 

Answer: D   

 

Explanation:

The data mover is part of the IBM Spectrum Protect™ for Virtual Environments: Data Protection for VMware program that backs up VMs to the IBM Spectrum Protect server. The data mover resides on the server where Data Protection for VMware is installed.

References:https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSERB6_8.1.0/ve.user/t_ve_dpext_cfg_datamover.html

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  68

Test Number: C9060-521

Vendor Name: IBM        

Cert Name: IBM Certified Deployment Professional

Test Name:   IBM Spectrum Protect V8.1 Implementation

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com/

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/C9060-521/

Latest MB6-892 PDF Questions Answers To pass Your MB6-892 Exam

Question: 1

Your supervisor asks you to complete the sales quotations that you have sent to a series of prospects.

Which two actions must you perform on each sales quotation to process it? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

 

  1. Clear the order holds.
  2. Mark the quotation as effective.
  3. Generate a confirmation.
  4. Convert the prospects to customers.

Answer: C,D

 

Question: 2

Your department manager wants an estimate of the actual invoice amounts that you will bill for a customer this month. However, the department manager does not want these amounts posted.

From which two types of invoices can you create a pro forma invoice? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

 

  1. subledger
  2. customer
  3. payment schedule
  4. free text

Answer: A,C

 

Question: 3

You are the payroll manager for your company. You are responsible for paying commission to sales personnel. One rule for the company is to pay a higher commission rate for new customers.

You need to configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade to calculate these amounts.

What should you set up in Microsoft Dynamics AX to capture the sales from those customers defined as new?

 

  1. Commission posting
  2. Commission calculation
  3. Customer group for commissions
  4. Sales group

Answer: C

 

Question: 4

You are an order processor at Contoso, Ltd.

You create a new sales order for a wholesale company. Later, the sales manager at Contoso, Ltd. for the wholesales account informs you that their company has a sales agreement for a 10 percent discount on apparel items.

You need to ensure that the discount is applied correctly to the order and that the order updates the fulfillment of the sales agreement.

What should you do?

 

  1. Put the sales order on hold, and then create a release from the sales agreement.
  2. Update the existing sales order lines to link to the sales agreement by using the Price details option under the Sales orderline button on the sales order.
  3. Delete the sales order, and then create a new sales order by using the Copy from journal function.
  4. Update the existing sales order lines to link to the sales agreement by using the Create link option under the Update line button on the sales order.

Answer: C

 

Question: 5

A customer wants to return an item.

You need to pick a disposition action where the item is replaced, the original item is destroyed, and the customer is credited.

Which action should you select?

 

  1. credit
  2. replace and scrap
  3. replace and credit
  4. scrap

Answer: C

 

Question: 6

You are the accounts receivable manager for your company.

You want to set up Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade so that a group of customers are automatically charged a handling charge on all orders based on their geographic location.

Which charges groups should you set up?

 

  1. Item charge group
  2. Vendor charge group
  3. Delivery charges groups
  4. Customer charge group

Answer: C

 

Question: 7

You need to explain the new sales quotation process to your sales team.

You want to cover the items that are included in the basic quotation to the customer.

Which three items are included in a quotation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

 

  1. trade agreements
  2. sales agreements
  3. discounts
  4. taxes and surcharges
  5. direct delivery

Answer: B,C,E

 

Question: 8

You are advising a client’s accounting department.

They want to know when the sales demand is satisfied and the physical inventory is relieved for stock items.

Which action indicates this to them?

 

  1. Invoice a sales order.
  2. Create a sales order.
  3. Post a packing slip.
  4. Pick a sales order.

Answer: B

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  65

Test Number: MB6-892

Vendor Name: Microsoft            

Cert Name: MBS

Test Name:   Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com/

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/mb6-892/